Quiz: Airspace 2

Answer (B) is correct. (Chart Supplement) On the sectional chart excerpt, to the right of the airport, you will find in the information for the airport weather in the third line. It states the type of Automated Weather Observation System (AWOS) and the frequency of 135.075.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) The CTAF for Garrison Municipal Airport (west of Area 2 in Fig. 21) is 122.9, because that frequency is marked with a C.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) The correct frequency to request fuel at the Coeur D’Alene Airport is the UNICOM frequency 122.8. It is given in Fig. 22, after “L74” in the airport information on the sectional chart. Radio frequencies are also given in Fig. 31, the Chart Supplement, under “Communications.”

Answer (C) is correct. (Chart Supplement) Fig. 31 is the Chart Supplement excerpt for Coeur D’Alene Air Terminal. Look for the section titled “Communications.” On that same line, it states that the CTAF (and UNICOM) frequency is 122.8. The CTAF can also be found in the airport information on the sectional chart.

Answer (C) is correct. (Chart Supplement) Fig. 31 is the Chart Supplement excerpt for Coeur D’Alene Air Terminal. Look for the section titled “Communications.” On that same line, it states the CTAF (and UNICOM) frequency is 122.8.

Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 4-1-9) Find the symbol for Currituck County Airport, northeast of Area 3 in Fig. 20. Incoming flights should use MULTICOM, 122.9, as the CTAF, because it is marked with a C. The recommended procedure is to report 10 NM out and then give position reports in the airport traffic pattern.

Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 4-1-9) Find Currituck County Airport, which is northeast of Area 3 in Fig. 20. Currituck County Airport is a non-towered airport with the specified CTAF 122.9. The recommended procedure for departure at a non-towered airport is to self-announce intentions on the CTAF prior to taxi and before taxiing on runway for departure.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) In Fig. 26, Barnes County Airport is to the east of Area 5. The CTAF at Barnes County Airport is marked as the UNICOM frequency for the airport, i.e., 122.8.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) The UNICOM frequency is printed in bold italics in the airport identifier. At Jamestown it is 123.0 MHz. The C next to it indicates it as the CTAF.

Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 4-1-9) Find Cooperstown Airport, which is at the top of Fig. 26, just north of 2. You should broadcast your intentions when 10 NM out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) Addison Airport (Fig. 25, Area 2) control tower frequency is given as the first item in the second line of the airport data to the right of the airport symbol. The control tower (CT) frequency is 126.0 MHz.

Answer (A) is correct. (ACUG) In Fig. 25, find the Dallas Executive Airport just above Area 3. When the Dallas Executive tower is not in operation, the CTAF is 127.25 because that frequency is marked with a C, which indicates a CTAF.

Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 4-1-9) As a standard operating practice, pilots of inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor and communicate, as appropriate, on the designated Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) from 10 mi. to landing.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) On Fig. 24, the requirement is to identify the airports having fuel available. Airports having fuel available are designated by small squares extending from the top, bottom, and both sides of the airport symbol. Rockwall (Area 1) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5) have such symbols.

Answer (A) is correct. (ACUG) On Fig. 21, the requirement is to identify the airports having fuel available. Airports having fuel available are designated by small squares extending from the top, bottom, and both sides of the airport symbol. Only Minot Int’l (Area 1) has such a symbol.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) The magenta (reddish) flag (west of 2) at Lake Drummond signifies that the lake is a visual check-point that can be used to identify the position for initial callup to the Norfolk approach control.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) On Fig. 20, northwest of 5, find “CAUTION: UNMARKED BALLOON ON CABLE TO 3,008' MSL.” This is self-explanatory.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) On Fig. 23, note the flag symbols at Claxton-Evans County Airport (1 in. to the left of 2), at Statesboro Bulloch County Airport (2 in. above 2), and at Ridgeland Airport (2 in. above 3). These airports are visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering the Savannah Class C airspace.

Answer (A) is correct. (ACUG) To determine the height of the lighted stack, first find it on Fig. 23. Locate the compass rose and look along the 010° radial, knowing that the compass rose has a 10-NM radius. Just outside the compass rose is a group obstruction (stacks). Its height is 454 ft. MSL; AGL height is not shown.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) Class C airspace consists of a surface area and a shelf area. The floor of the shelf area is 1,200 feet above the airport elevation. The Savannah Class C airspace (Fig. 23, Area 3) is depicted by solid magenta circles. For each circle there is a number over a number or SFC. The numbers are in hundreds of feet MSL. The bottom number represents the floor of the airspace. Thus, the floor of the shelf area of the Class C airspace is 1,300 feet MSL (41/13).

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) On Fig. 23, find the lighted obstacle noted by its proximity to Savannah International by being outside the surface area of the Class C airspace, which has a 5-NM radius. It is indicated by the obstacle symbol with arrows or lightning flashes extending from the tip. According to the numbers to the northeast of the symbol, the height of the obstacle is 1,548 ft. MSL or 1,534 ft. AGL.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) The miniature glider near the Ridgeland Airport (at 3 on Fig. 23) indicates a glider operations area. The Chart Supplement will have information on the glider operations at Ridgeland Airport.

Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.133) An aircraft may not be operated within a restricted area unless permission has been obtained from the controlling agency. Frequently, the ATC within the area acts as the controlling agent’s authorization; e.g., an approach control in a military restricted area can permit aircraft to enter it when the restricted area is not active.

Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 3-2-5) A blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts Class D airspace.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) The area just to the west of Area 3 represents an area that is a national park, wildlife refuge, primitive and wilderness area, etc. To the northwest of this area is the name, North Maricopa Mountains Wilderness Area.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) The GXF airport is surrounded by a dashed blue line, which indicates it is within Class D airspace.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) The Class D airspace at Livermore Airport extends from the surface to 2,900 feet MSL, as indicated by the following symbol within the blue segmented circle: [29]. Thus, the minimum altitude to fly over and avoid the Livermore Airport Class D airspace is 2,901 feet MSL.

Answer (A) is correct. (ACUG) The Class C airspace at OAK (Area 6) is shown in solid magenta lines. The surface area over the airport indicates the Class C airspace extends from the surface (SFC) upward to T, which means the ceiling ends at the base of the San Francisco Class B airspace. The base of the Class B airspace changes over OAK. To the left of OAK the base is 2,100 feet MSL and to the right of OAK the base is 3,000 feet MSL.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) Sky Way Airport (southeast of 6) is a private, i.e., nonpublic-use, airport as indicated by the term “(Pvt)” after the airport name. Private airports that are shown on the sectional charts have an emergency or landmark value.

Answer (A) is correct. (ACUG) Dubey Airport (south of 1) is a private, i.e., nonpublic-use, airport as indicated by the term “(Pvt)” after the airport name. Private airports that are shown on the sectional charts have an emergency or landmark value. The airport symbol with the letter “R” in the center means it is a nonpublic-use airport.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) The maximum elevation figure (MEF) is shown in each quadrangle bounded by latitude and longitude tick marks. The MEF in the quadrangle that is just east of Gnoss Airport consists of a large “3” and a somewhat smaller “2,” which mean the MEF is 3,200 feet MSL. In the quadrangle that contains Buchanan Airport, the MEF is south of the airport. The large “2” and the somewhat smaller “4” mean the MEF is 2,400 feet MSL. Thus, on a flight from Gnoss Airport to Buchanan Airport, the MEF that would ensure obstacle clearance is 3,200 feet.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) Area 4 is in the upper left hand-corner, and Area 5 is in the center of the right-hand side of Fig. 70. A flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) to Livermore Airport (LVK) will pass beneath the sections of Class B airspace extending upward from 4,000 ft. MSL and 6,000 ft. MSL, as indicated by the “100” above the “40” (separated by a line) and the “100” above the “60” (separated by a line), respectively.
Livermore Airport is encircled by blue dashed lines, indicating Class D airspace extending upward from the surface to a specified altitude (here 2,900 ft. MSL). Two-way radio communications must be established prior to entry and thereafter maintained while in Class D airspace.

Answer (A) is correct. (ACUG) On Fig. 69, Area 4 is near the center and Area 1 is in the upper right-hand corner of the chart. A flight from Bishop Airport to McCampbell Airport at 2,000 feet MSL will pass through the Corpus Christi Class C airspace. Two-way radio communications and transponder with encoding altimeter are required when operating within Class C airspace.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) On Fig. 69, Area 5 is 9 NM north of Corpus Christi. The Corpus Christi VORTAC is just inside the magenta-shaded area. This indicates that Class E (controlled) airspace extends upward from 700 feet AGL to the base of the overlying airspace [here Class C airspace at 1,200 feet MSL, as indicated by the magenta solid lines and the “40” above the “12” (separated by a line), 5 NM west of the VORTAC].

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) A magenta dashed line surrounding an airport identifies it as Class E airspace that extends to the surface. The presence of this dashed magenta line indicates that this airport offers a precision instrument approach.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) According to the Sectional Chart Legend, a magenta circle with nothing indicated on the inside of the circle indicates that airport is not hard-surfaced.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) The magenta shading surrounding Barnes County Airport indicates that Class E airspace starts at 700 feet AGL. Therefore, Class G airspace exists from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 7-5-6) On Fig. 26, Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge is to the west of Area 3. All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet above the surface of a national wildlife refuge except if forced to land by emergency, landing at a designated site, or on official government business.

Answer (A) is correct. (ACUG) Sprague Airport is the private airport located between Areas 3 and 4 on Fig. 26. There is no specific airspace designation around Sprague. Therefore, the airspace over the airport is Class G airspace up to the next overlying airspace. Unless the floor is designated otherwise, Class E airspace exists from 1,200 ft. AGL, up to but not including 18,000 ft. MSL.

Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.155) The airspace over the town of Cooperstown (Fig. 26, north of 2) is Class G airspace up to 700 feet AGL, and Class E airspace from 700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL (indicated by the magenta shading). Therefore, the visibility and cloud clearance requirements for daylight VFR operation over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

Answer (A) is correct. (ACUG) Bryn Airport is located 1.5 in. south of 2 on Fig. 26. There is no specific airspace designation around Bryn. Therefore, the airspace over the airport is Class G airspace up to the next overlying airspace. Unless the floor is designated otherwise, Class E airspace exists from 1,200 ft. AGL, up to but not including 18,000 ft. MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 3-4-5) Military Operations Areas (MOAs), such as Devils Lake East in Fig. 26 consist of defined lateral and vertical limits that are designated for the purpose of separating military training activities from IFR traffic. Most training activities necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers, i.e., air combat tactics, aerobatics, and formation training. Therefore, the likelihood of a collision is increased inside an MOA. VFR traffic is permitted, but extra vigilance should be exercised in seeing and avoiding military aircraft.

Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 3-4-5) Military operations areas are shown on the sectional chart surrounded by magenta hashed lines. Devils Lake East MOA is labeled in the top left of Fig. 26. All the magenta hashed lines around the label are the boundaries of the MOA.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) On Fig. 25, DFW is located at the center of the chart and the navigation facility is 1 NM south of the right set of parallel runways. The symbol is a hexagon with a dot in the center within a square. This is the symbol for a VOR/DME navigation facility.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) Hicks Airport (T67) on Fig. 25 is northeast of 4. Class B airspace is depicted by a solid blue line, as shown just west of the airport. Follow the blue line toward the bottom of the chart until you find a number over a number in blue, 110/40.
The bottom number denotes the floor of the Class B airspace as 4,000 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG and 14 CFR 91.119) The Cedar Hill TV towers (Fig. 25, west of 8) have an elevation of 2,549 feet MSL. The minimum safe altitude over a congested area is 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. Thus, to vertically clear the towers, the minimum altitude is 3,549 feet MSL (2,549 + 1,000).

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney airport (TKI) (Fig. 25, northeast of 7) is Class D airspace as denoted by the segmented blue lines. The upper limit is depicted in a broken box in hundreds of feet MSL to the left of the airport symbol. The box contains the number “29,” meaning that the vertical limit of the Class D airspace is 2,900 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG and 14 CFR 71.9) Dallas Executive Airport (Fig. 25, Area 3) has a segmented blue circle around it depicting Class D airspace. Dallas Executive Airport also underlies Class B airspace as depicted by solid blue lines. The altitudes of the Class B airspace are shown as 110/30 to the southeast of the airport. The bottom number denotes the floor of the Class B airspace to be 3,000 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) The first (top) line of the airport data for Dallas-Ft. Worth Int’l. and Dallas Love Field (Fig. 25, Areas 5 and 6) indicates NO SVFR, which means no special VFR permitted for a fixed-wing aircraft.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) The airspace overlying Fort Worth Meacham (Fig. 25, southeast of 4) is Class D airspace as denoted by the segmented blue lines. The upper limit is depicted in a broken box in hundreds of feet MSL southeast of the airport. Thus, the Class D airspace extends from the surface to 3,200 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) To the southwest of Lakeview Airport, there are numbers 110 over 30 in blue color. This indicates the base of Class B airspace between the blue airspace lines is 3,000 ft. MSL and the top is 11,000 ft. MSL.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG and 14 CFR 91.119) The first step is to find the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport on Fig. 24, near 2. The elevation numbers to the right of the obstruction symbol indicate that its top is 903 feet MSL or a height of 323 feet AGL. Thus, the clearance altitude is 1,403 feet MSL (903 feet MSL + 500 feet of clearance).

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG and 14 CFR 91.119) Find Airpark East, which is near 1 in Fig. 24. Remember to locate the actual airport symbol, not just the name of the airport. It is the third of three airports in a southwesterly line from the 1. The elevation of the top of the obstacle on the northeast side of the airport is marked in bold as 773 feet MSL. Minimum altitude to clear the 773-foot obstacle by 500 feet is 1,273 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) Information concerning parachute jump sites may be found in the Chart Supplement.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) The miniature parachute near the Caddo Mills Airport (at 1 on Fig. 24) indicates a parachute jumping area. In Legend 1, the symbol for a parachute jumping area instructs you to see the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement for more information.

Answer (A) is correct. (ACUG) Magee Airport on Fig. 22 is northwest of 3. The question asks for the vertical limits of the Class E airspace over the airport. Class E airspace areas extend upwards but do not include 18,000 ft. MSL (base of Class A airspace). The floor of a Class E airspace designated as an airway is 1,200 ft. AGL, unless otherwise indicated.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG and 14 CFR 91.155) The airspace around Sandpoint Airport is Class G airspace from the surface to 700 ft. AGL and Class E airspace from 700 ft. AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 ft. MSL (indicated by the magenta shading). Therefore, 1,200 ft. AGL is within Class E airspace. The VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements for operations in Class E airspace below 10,000 ft. MSL are 3 miles and a distance of 1,000 ft. above, 500 ft. below, and 2,000 ft. horizontally from each cloud.

Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 3-4-6, FAA-H-8083-25B) Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts with an “A” followed by a number (e.g., A-211) to inform non-participating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should exercise caution in alert areas. Both pilots of participating aircraft and pilots transiting the area are equally responsible for collision avoidance.

Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 3-4-3) Before an aircraft penetrates a restricted area, authorization must be obtained from the controlling agency. Information pertaining to the agency controlling the restricted area may be found at the bottom of the En Route Chart appropriate to navigation.

Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 3-5-2) In Fig. 21, IR 644 is below Area 3. Military training flights are established to promote proficiency of military pilots in the interest of national defense. Military flight routes below 1,500 ft. are charted with four-digit numbers; those above 1,500 ft. have three-digit numbers. IR means the flights are made in accordance with IFR. (VR would mean they use VFR.) Thus, IR 644, a three-digit number, is above 1,500 ft., and flights will be flown under IFR rules.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) The tan area indicates terrain between 2,000 ft. and 3,000 ft. The elevation contours on sectionals vary by 500 ft. increments. The 2,000 ft. contour line is located where the color changes from light green to light tan. Since there is no other contour line in the light tan area, the terrain elevation is between 2,000 ft. and 2,500 ft. MSL. Also, Poleschook Airport (halfway between 1 and 2) indicates an elevation above MSL of 2,245.

Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 7-5-6) The Fish and Wildlife Service requests that pilots maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 ft. above the terrain of national wildlife refuge areas.

Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 3-2-6) Beginning at either 700 ft. AGL or 1,200 ft. AGL, Class E airspace extends up to, but not including, the base of the overlying controlled airspace. With the exception of Class B and Class C airspace, Class E airspace extends up to, but not including, 18,000 ft. MSL, i.e., the floor of Class A airspace.

Answer (C) is correct. (ACUG) On sectional charts, airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, E, or G airspace are shown in blue. Airports with no control towers are shown in magenta.

Answer (A) is correct. (ACUG) The question asks for the elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport (Fig. 20). East of 2, note that the second line of the airport identifier for Chesapeake Regional reads “19 L 55 123.075.” The first number, in bold type, is the altitude of the airport above MSL. It is followed by the L for lighted runway(s), 55 for the length of the longest runway (5,500 ft.), and the CTAF frequency (123.075).

Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 3-2-4) The minimum equipment to land and take off at Norfolk International (Fig. 20) is a Mode C transponder and a two-way radio. Norfolk International is located within Class C airspace. Unless otherwise authorized, a pilot must establish and maintain radio communication with ATC prior to and while operating in the Class C airspace area. Mode C transponders are also required in and above all Class C airspace areas.

Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 3-4-3) See Fig. 20. Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as military firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.

Answer (B) is correct. (ACUG) The NFE Airport (south of Area 1) is surrounded by a dashed magenta line. This line indicates Class E surface airspace for the NFE Airport.