Lesson 2 EEQ

Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.7) The pilot in command is responsible for ensuring the aircraft is in an airworthy condition before each flight.

Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 1) To get a complete briefing before a planned flight, the pilot should request a standard briefing. This will include all pertinent information needed for a safe flight.

Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 1) By telling the briefer your intended route and destination, the briefer will be able to provide you a more relevant briefing.

Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 1) When telephoning for a weather briefing, you should identify yourself as a pilot so the person can give you an aviation-oriented briefing. Many nonpilots call weather briefing facilities to get the weather for other activities.

Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 7-1-5) Flight Service is designed to provide en route traffic with timely and meaningful weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight intended. It is designed to be a continuous exchange of information on winds, turbulence, visibility, icing, etc., between pilots and Flight Service specialists on the ground.

Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 4-1-13) The ceiling/sky condition, visibility, and obstructions to vision may be omitted from the ATIS broadcast if the ceiling is above 5,000 ft. with visibility more than 5 SM.

Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) A ceiling layer is not designated in the METAR code. For aviation purposes, the ceiling is the lowest broken or overcast layer, or vertical visibility into an obscuration.

Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) At KMDW a special METAR (SPECI) taken at 1856Z reported wind 320° at 5 kt., visibility 1 1/2 SM in moderate rain, overcast clouds at 700 ft., temperature 17°C, dew point 16°C, altimeter 29.80 in. Hg, remarks follow, rain began at 35 min. past the hour.

Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) The wind group at KJFK is coded as 18004KT. The first three digits are the direction the wind is blowing from referenced to true north. The next two digits are the speed in knots. Thus, the wind direction and speed at KJFK are 180° true at 4 knots.

Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) KINK is reporting visibility of 15 SM and sky clear (15SM SKC); KBOI is reporting visibility of 30 SM and a scattered cloud layer base at 15,000 ft. (30SM SCT150); and KLAX is reporting visibility of 6SM in mist (foggy conditions > 5/8 SM visibility) with a scattered cloud layer at 700 ft. and another one at 25,000 ft. (6SM BR SCT007 SCT250). All of these conditions are above VFR weather minimums of 1,000-ft. ceiling and/or 3-SM visibility.

Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) SHRA is a coded group of forecast weather. SH is a descriptor that means showers. RA is a type of precipitation that means rain. Thus, SHRA means rain showers.

Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) In the TAF for KOKC, from 2200Z to 2400Z, the conditions are forecast to gradually become wind 200° at 13 kt. with gusts to 20 kt., visibility 4 SM in moderate rain showers, overcast clouds at 2,000 ft. Between the hours of 0000Z and 0600Z, a chance (40 percent) exists of visibility 2 SM in thunderstorm with moderate rain, and 800 ft. overcast, cumulus clouds.

Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) The valid period of a TAF follows the four-letter location identifier and the six-digit issuance date/time. The valid period group is a two-digit date followed by the two-digit beginning hour and the two-digit ending hour. The valid period of the TAF for KMEM is 1218/1324, which means the forecast is valid from the 12th day at 1800Z until the 13th at 2400Z.

Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) SIGMET advisories cover severe icing not associated with thunderstorms; severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence not associated with thunderstorms; duststorms, sandstorms, or volcanic ash that reduce visibility to less than 3 SM; and volcanic eruption.

Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a heat exchange. A heat differential (difference between the temperatures of two air masses) causes a differential in pressure, which in turn causes movement of air. Heat exchanges occur constantly, e.g., melting, cooling, updrafts, downdrafts, wind, etc.

Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 16) The difference between the air temperature and dew point is the temperature/dew point spread. As the temperature/dew point spread decreases, fog or low clouds tend to develop.

Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 3) Dew point is the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated or have 100% humidity.

Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 3) Air temperature largely determines how much water vapor can be held by the air. Warm air can hold more water vapor than cool air.

Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 3) As water vapor condenses, it becomes visible as clouds, fog, or dew.

Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 16) Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. It is most common in coastal areas.

Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 3-2-6) Class E airspace floor begins at 700 feet AGL. It is depicted by a magenta vignette circle or area around an airport.

Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 3-2-5) When a tower ceases operation, the Class D airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class G and E.

Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.155) The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are a 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility.

Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.155) Below 1,200 feet AGL in Class G airspace during daylight hours, the VFR weather minimum is 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds.

Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.155) During operations in Class G airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is 1,000 feet. NOTE: The FAA question fails to specify what type of airspace. Since AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, and E), that implies Class G airspace.

Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 3-1-4) Onawa, IA, (K36) airport is surrounded by Class G airspace. The VFR weather minima in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet AGL (regardless of MSL altitude) is 1 statute mile of visibility and clear of clouds.

Answer (B) is correct. (Chart Supplement) On the sectional chart excerpt, to the right of the airport, you will find in the information for the airport weather in the third line. It states the type of Automated Weather Observation System (AWOS) and the frequency of 135.075.

Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 11) Begin on the left section of Fig. 40 at 38°C (see outside air temperature at the bottom). Move up vertically to the pressure altitude of 2,000 feet. Then proceed horizontally to the first reference line. Since takeoff weight is 2,750, move parallel to the closest guideline to 2,750 pounds. Then proceed horizontally to the second reference line. Since the wind is calm, proceed again horizontally to the right-hand margin of the diagram (ignore the third reference line because there is no obstacle, i.e., ground roll is desired), which will be at 1,150 feet.

Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 11) The takeoff distance to clear a 50-ft. obstacle is required. Begin on the left side of the graph at standard temperature (as represented by the curved line labeled “ISA”). From the intersection of the standard temperature line and the 4,000-ft. pressure altitude, proceed horizontally to the right to the first reference line, and then move parallel to the closest guideline to 2,800 pounds. From there, proceed horizontally to the right to the third reference line (skip the second reference line because there is no wind), and move upward following equidistantly between the diagonal lines all the way to the far right. You are at 1,750 ft., which is the takeoff distance to clear a 50-ft. obstacle.

Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) The standard temperature and pressure values for sea level are 15°C and 29.92″ Hg. This is equivalent to 59°F and 1013.2 millibars of mercury.

Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 11) Takeoff and climb performance are reduced by high density altitude. High density altitude is a result of high temperatures and high relative humidity.

Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 4) Increasing the temperature of a substance decreases its density, and a decrease in air density means a higher density altitude. Therefore, with an increase in temperature the air density decreases, providing a higher density altitude.

Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 11) When temperature increases, the air expands and therefore becomes less dense. This decrease in density means a higher density altitude. Pressure altitude is based on standard temperature. Thus, density altitude exceeds pressure altitude when the temperature is warmer than standard.

Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 5) Lift is produced by the wings and opposes weight, which is the result of gravity. Thrust is produced by the engine/propeller and opposes drag, which is the resistance of the air as the airplane moves through it.

Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 5) The four forces (lift, weight, thrust, and drag) that act on an airplane are in equilibrium during unaccelerated level flight.

Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 4) Bernoulli’s principle states in part that the internal pressure of a fluid (liquid or gas) decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases. This same principle applies to air flowing over the curved upper surface of a wing.

Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 5) The angle between the relative wind and the wing chord line is the angle of attack. The wing chord line is a straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing.

Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 5) The angle of attack is the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind. The wing chord line is a straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing. The relative wind is the direction of the airflow relative to the wing when the wing is moving through the air.

Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-3C Chap 3) When the wings of an airplane are not level, the lift is not entirely vertical and tends to pull the airplane toward the direction of the lower wing. An airplane is turned when the pilot coordinates rudder, aileron, and elevator to bank in order to attain a horizontal component of lift.

Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 5) The location of the center of gravity with respect to the center of lift determines, to a great extent, the longitudinal stability of the airplane. Positive stability is attained by having the center of lift behind the center of gravity. Then the tail provides negative lift, creating a downward tail force, which counteracts the nose’s tendency to pitch down.

Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 4) Center of pressure (CP) is the imaginary but determinable point at which all of the upward lift forces on the wing are concentrated. In general, at high angles of attack the CP moves forward, while at low angles of attack the CP moves aft. The relationship of the CP to center of gravity (CG) affects both aerodynamic balance and controllability.

Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 5) The effect of torque increases in direct proportion to engine power and inversely to airspeed. Thus, at low airspeeds, high angles of attack, and high power settings, torque is the greatest.

Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 5) ( ? )
Asymmetric propeller loading (P-factor) occurs when the airplane is flown at a high angle of attack. The downward-moving blade on the right side of the propeller (as seen from the rear) has a higher angle of attack, which creates higher thrust than the upward-moving blade on the left. Thus, the airplane yaws around the vertical axis to the left.

Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 5) P-factor or asymmetric propeller loading occurs when an airplane is flown at a high angle of attack because the downward-moving blade on the right side of the propeller (as seen from the rear) has a higher angle of attack, which creates higher thrust than the upward-moving blade on the left. Thus, the airplane yaws around the vertical axis to the left.

Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) VS0 is defined as the stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 2-3-3) Runway numbers are determined from the approach direction. The runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic direction of the centerline. Thus, the numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately 090° and 270° magnetic.

Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 2-3-3) Position A indicates a displaced threshold by the arrows located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and displaced threshold. Arrow heads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar. A displaced threshold is located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. The portion of runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction. These markings are white in the real environment.

Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 2-3-9) A runway location sign has a black background with a yellow inscription and a yellow border. The inscription on the sign informs the pilot they are located on Runway 22.

Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 2-3-8) Runway/runway hold position signs are a type of mandatory instruction sign used to denote intersecting runways. These are runways that intersect and are being used for “Land, Hold Short” operations or are normally used for taxiing. These signs have a red background with white lettering. Runway/runway hold position signs are identical to the signs used for taxiway/runway intersections.

Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 2-1-9) Operation of the airport beacon during daylight hours often indicates that weather at the airport located in controlled airspace (e.g., Class D airspace) is below basic VFR weather minimums, i.e., less than 1,000 ft. ceiling or 3 SM visibility. Note that there is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation of an airport’s rotating beacon.

Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2 and FAA-H-8083-3C Chap 3) VX means the best angle of climb airspeed (i.e., the airspeed which will provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance).

Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2 and FAA-H-8083-3C Chap 3) VY means the airspeed for the best rate of climb (i.e., the airspeed that you use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time).

Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 8) The lower airspeed limit of the green arc indicates the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration. “Specified configuration” refers to flaps up and landing gear retracted.

Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 8) The lower limit of the white arc indicates the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing position.

Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-3C Chap 9) In the event of a power failure after becoming airborne, the most important rule to remember is to maintain best glide airspeed. This will usually require a pitch attitude slightly higher than level flight. Invariably, with a power failure, one returns to ground, but emphasis should be put on a controlled return rather than a crash return. Many pilots attempt to maintain altitude at the expense of airspeed, resulting in a stall or stall/spin.

Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 5) Turns increase the load factor because the lift from the wings is used to pull the airplane around a corner as well as to offset the force of gravity. The wings must carry the airplane’s weight plus offset centrifugal force during the turn. For example, a 60° bank results in a load factor of 2; i.e., the wings must support twice the weight they do in level flight.

Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 5) The greater the load (whether from gross weight or from centrifugal force), the more lift is required. Therefore, an aircraft will stall at higher airspeeds when the load and/or load factor is increased.

Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 5) Points A and J are the normal stall speed (VS1). At this speed in the clean configuration, the airplane will stall. The normal stall speed is shown on the airspeed indicator at the low-speed end of the green arc.

Answer (C) is correct. (AC 61-67C) In order to enter a spin, an airplane must always first be stalled. Thereafter, the spin is caused when one wing becomes less stalled than the other wing.

Answer (C) is correct. (AC 61-67C) In order to enter a spin, an airplane must always first be stalled. Thereafter, the spin is caused when one wing is less stalled than the other wing. In a spin to the left, the right wing is less stalled than the left wing.